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Web Demo:
1.Which of these is effective at reducing the amount of network latency and number of delays caused by chatty protocols?
A. firewall solution
B. WCCPv2
C. content filtering
D. intelligent proxies
Answer: D


2.Which of these is a Layer 4 WAN optimization component?
A. DCE
B. TSO
C. DRE
D. DWE
Answer: C


3. The Cisco Central Manager GUI allows administrators to perform which three actions or sets of actions? (Choose three.)
A. view reports detailing the effectiveness of acceleration
B. set up and distribute print drivers
C. prioritize network traffic through the WAE
D. correlate security alerts that reach the LAN
E. accelerate CIFS traffic with the assistance of QoS
F. create, edit, and delete application policies
Answer: ABF


Related Exams:
642-832 - Troubleshooting-and-maintaing-cisco-ip-networks
642-242 - Unified-Contact-Center-Enterprise-Implementation(UCCEI)
650-621 - LCSAWALAN--Cisco-Lifecycle-Services-Advanced-Wireless
650-059 - LCSARS-Cisco-Lifecycle-Services-Advanced-Routing-and-Switching
650-575 - LCSAS--Cisco-Lifecycle-Services-Advanced-Security

640-802-Cisco Certified Network Associate

000-101-Virtualization Technical Support for AIX and Linux

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Web Demo:
1.Which statement is true about SSL endpoint authentication?
A. SSL always authenticates the client since the client certificate is always sent to the server.
B. SSL always authenticates the server since the server certificate is always sent to the client.
C. SSL guarantees the identities of the endpoints since certificates are required to flow both ways.
D. SSL is optional; it depends on the cipher suite requested by the client.
Answer: B

2.Which is NOT a feature of Configuration Checkpoint Management?
A. The administrator can limit the number of Checkpoint configurations maintained.
B. Configuration objects can be imported from Checkpoint configurations.
C. Checkpoint configurations can be deleted from file system.
D. Checkpoint configurations may be compared against the running configuration.
E. Checkpoint configurations may be compared against the persisted configuration.
Answer: B

3.Which statement is true about the TCP protocol?
A. TCP is unreliable since it does not support checksum.
B. TCP has no capability to sequence transmitted packets.
C. TCP sends back an ACK packet if the transfer was successful.
D. TCP is usually faster than UDP and is required for any multicasting transmission.
Answer: C

Related Exams:
000-898 - IBM-Tivoli-Provisioning-Manager-V5.1
000-857 - iseries-windows-integration-technical-solutions-v5r3
000-200 - IBM-Storage-Sales-V1
000-206 - High-End-Disk-Solutions-for-Open-Systems-Version-1
000-716 - DB2-Data-Warehouse-Edition-V9.1

640-802-Cisco Certified Network Associate

000-101-Virtualization Technical Support for AIX and Linux

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Web Demo:
1.Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?
A. Router RAR1 will accept only route 10.10.0.0/19 from its BGP neighbor.
B. Router RAR1 will send only route 10.10.0.0/19 to its BGP neighbor.
C. Only traffic with a destination from 10.10.0.0/19 will be permitted.
D. Only traffic going to 10.10.0.0/19 will be permitted.
Answer: A


2.Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP has been configured on all routers in the network. What additional configuration statement should be included on router R4 to advertise a default route to its neighbors?
A. R4(config)# ip default-network 10.0.0.0
B. R4(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.1
C. R4(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 10.1.1.1
D. R4(config-router)# default-information originate
Answer: A


3.Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the 6.6.6.0/24 prefix?
A. If another path advertises the 6.6.6.0/24 path and has the default local preference, that path is more preferred.
B. The command neighbor send-community is configured on BGP neighbor 10.10.23.3.
C. The route 10.10.23.3 is not being advertised to other BGP neighbors.
D. Route 6.6.6.0/24 is learned by an IBGP peer.
Answer: B

Related Exams:
650-173 - Small-Medium-Business-for-Account-Managers
642-144 - IP-Telephony-Express(IPTX)
642-371 - Foundation-Express-for-Systems-Engineers(FOUNDSE)
642-415 - Unified-Communications-Architecture-and-Design
642-067 - Advanced-Routing-and-Switching-for-Field-Engineers

640-802-Cisco Certified Network Associate

000-101-Virtualization Technical Support for AIX and Linux

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Web Demo:
1.If no metric is specified for the routes being redistributed into IS-IS, what metric value is assigned to the routes?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 10
D. 20
Answer: A


2.Which three restrictions apply to OSPF stub areas? (Choose three.)
A. No virtual links are allowed.
B. The area cannot be a backbone area.
C. Redistribution is not allowed unless the packet is changed to a type 7 packet.
D. The area has no more than 10 routers.
E. No autonomous system border routers are allowed.
F. Interarea routes are suppressed.
Answer: ABE


3.Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements accurately describe the result of applying the exhibited route map? (Choose three.)
A. The map prohibits the redistribution of all type 2 external OSPF routes with tag 6 set.
B. The map prohibits the redistribution of all type 2 external OSPF routes.
C. The map redistributes into EIGRP all routes that match the pfx prefix list and the five metric values40000, 1000, 255, 1, and 1500.
D. The map prohibits the redistribution of all external OSPF routes with tag 6 set.
E. All routes that do no match clauses 10 and 20 of the route map are redistributed with their tags set to 8.
F. The map permits the redistribution of all type 1 external OSPF routes.
Answer: AEF


Related Exams:
642-661 - CCIP-Configuring-BGP-on-Cisco-Routers-(BGP)
642-055 - ARSFE-Advanced-Routing-and-Switching-for-Field-Engineers
642-902 - implementing-cisco-ip-routing
642-652 - Wide-Area-Application-Services-for-Field-Engineers
642-357 - Designing-Cisco-Storage-Network-Solutions

640-802-Cisco Certified Network Associate

000-101-Virtualization Technical Support for AIX and Linux

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Web Demo:
1.Which two statements about the Cisco AutoSecure feature are true? (Choose two.)
A. All passwords entered during the AutoSecure configuration must be a minimum of 8 characters in length.
B. Cisco123 would be a valid password for both the enable password and the enable secret commands.
C. The auto secure command can be used to secure the router login as well as the NTP and SSH protocols.
D. For an interactive full session of AutoSecure, the auto secure login command should be used.
E. If the SSH server was configured, the 1024 bit RSA keys are generated after the auto secure command is enabled.
Answer: CE


2.What are the two main features of Cisco IOS Firewall? (Choose two.)
A. TACACS+
B. AAA
C. Cisco Secure Access Control Server
D. Intrusion Prevention System
E. Authentication Proxy
Answer: DE


3. Which three statements are correct about MPLS-based VPNs? (Choose three.)
A. Route Targets (RTs) are attributes attached to a VPNv4 BGP route to indicate its VPN membership.
B. Scalability becomes challenging for a very large, fully meshed deployment.
C. Authentication is done using a digital certificate or pre-shared key.
D. A VPN client is required for client-initiated deployments.
E. A VPN client is not required for users to interact with the network.
F. An MPLS-based VPN is highly scalable because no site-to-site peering is required.
Answer: AEF


Related Exams:
642-961 - Cisco-Data-Center-Networking-Infrastructure-Solutions-design
640-721 - Implementing-Cisco-Unified-Wireless-Networking-Essentials
642-654 - WAASSE---Wide-Area-Application-Services-for-System
642-446 - Implementing-Cisco-Unified-Communications-IP-Telephony-Part-1
646-011 - Storage-Networking-Cisco-Storage-Sales-Specialist-(CSSS)

 

640-802-Cisco Certified Network Associate

000-101-Virtualization Technical Support for AIX and Linux

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Web Demo:
1.Which statement is true about IP telephony calls?
A. A Voice over IP (VoIP) packet consists of the voice payload, IP header, TCP header, RTP header, and Layer 2 link header.
B. The voice carrier stream uses H.323 to set up, maintain, and tear down call endpoints.
C. Call control signaling uses Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP) packets that contain actual voice samples.
D. The sum of bandwidth necessary for each major application, including voice, video, and data, should not exceed 75 percent of the total available bandwidth for each link.
Answer: D


2. Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect on the trust boundary of configuring the command mls qos trust cos on the switch port that is connected to the IP phone?
A. Effectively the trust boundary has been moved to the IP phone.
B. The host is now establishing the CoS value and has effectively become the trust boundary.
C. The switch is rewriting packets it receives from the IP phone and determining the CoS value.
D. The switch will no longer tag incoming voice packets and will trust the distribution layer switch to set the CoS.
E. RTP will be used to negotiate a CoS value based upon bandwidth utilization on the link.
Answer: A


3.Which three WLAN statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. A lightweight AP receives control and configuration from a WLAN controller to which it is associated.
B. A WLAN client that is operating in half-duplex mode will delay all clients in that WLAN.
C. Ad hoc mode allows mobile clients to connect directly without an intermediate AP.
D. Another term for infrastructure mode is independent service set (IBSS).
E. The Aironet 1230 access point is an example of an access point that operates solely as a lightweight access point.
F. WLANs are designed to share the medium and can easily handle an increased demand of channel contention.
Answer: ABC


Related Exams:
650-173 - SBCSAM-Smart-Business-Communication-Systems-for-Account-Managers
350-022 - CCIE-Written--Service-Provider:-DSL
350-018 - CCIE-Pre-Qualification-Test-for-Security
642-162 - IP-Contact-Center-Express-Implementation-Exam
650-393 - LCSE-Cisco-Lifecycle-Services-Express

640-802-Cisco Certified Network Associate

000-101-Virtualization Technical Support for AIX and Linux

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Web Demo:
1.During a meeting with a client, an organizational chart containing all of the customer contact information including the project sponsor, the implementation managers, operations managers, and end-user managers is presented.
Who should be contacted to get a comprehensive list of experts?
A. the stakeholders
B. the customers CEO
C. the financial approver
D. the secretary of the customers CEO
Answer: A

2.Which two conditions should be met in order for the customer to understand the findings of the requirements analysis? (Choose two.)
A. The presentation must be delivered to the CIO.
B. Requirements must be defined by the customer.
C. Recommendations must be presented to the customer.
D. Customer expectations must be documented in the analysis.
E. The format for the analysis must be provided by the customer.
Answer: CD


3.
Related Exams:
LOT-753 - Using-JavaScript-in-IBM-Lotus-Domino-7-Applications
000-005 - IBM-Maximo-Asset-Management-V7.1-Solution-Design
000-963 - Storage-Sales-for-N-series-Version-1
000-667 - IBM-Test-667--Architectural-Design-of-SOA-Solutions
000-020 - IBM-Tivoli-Access-Manager-for-Enterprise-Single-Sign-On-V8.0.1-Implementation

640-802-Cisco Certified Network Associate

000-101-Virtualization Technical Support for AIX and Linux

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Web Demo:
1.Which statement is true about SSL security?
A. SSL is located above the HTTP protocol layer so the HTTP headers are still in plaintext.
B. SSL provides message level security so that intermediary nodes cannot see the message contents.
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C. SSL provides transport layer security such that data is secure between the endpoints of a connection.
D. SSL sits below the TCP/IP layer such that the TCP functions (error control, packet marshalling, etc.) are secure.
Answer: C

2.Which is NOT a feature of Configuration Checkpoint Management?
A. The administrator can limit the number of Checkpoint configurations maintained.
B. Configuration objects can be imported from Checkpoint configurations.
C. Checkpoint configurations can be deleted from file system.
D. Checkpoint configurations may be compared against the running configuration.
E. Checkpoint configurations may be compared against the persisted configuration.
Answer: B

3.A company requires syncpoint on each message extracted from a Request Queue. The Message is processed via HTTP by a backend system. If the DataPower device does not successfully process the message, it should not be removed from the Request Queue. They have created a Multi-Protocol Gateway Service which uses an MQ Front Side Handler and an MQ Queue Manager to facilitate this.
How can they implement syncpoint?
A. Set the Queue Manager objects Units Of Work property to 1
B. Set the Queue Manager objects Total Connection Limit property to 1
C. The DataPower device utilizes an MQ Client, syncpoint cannot be implemented
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D. The DataPower device utilizes an MQ Client, syncpoint is implemented by default
E. Create two Queue Manager objects, assign the Request Queue to one Queue Manager and the Reply Queue to the other then add them both to a single MQ Queue Manager Group
Answer: A

Related Exams:
000-232 - IBM-Pseries-Administration-And-Support-For-Aix-5l-5.25
000-900 - IBM-Tivoli-TotalStorage-Productivity-Center-V3.1-Implement
000-R06 - IBM-SurePOS-5x3-Technical-Professional(Europe)
000-712 - u2-universe-v9.6-administraation-for-unix-and-windows-admin
000-885 - IBM-Tivoli-Storage-Manager-Express-V5.3.7

640-802-Cisco Certified Network Associate

000-101-Virtualization Technical Support for AIX and Linux

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Web Demo:
1.What Design Studio function cannot be completed using command line utilities?
A. Export type trees and maps
B. Compile maps for the z/OS platform
C. Logical and Structural analysis of type trees
D. Create a type tree using the text file importer
Answer: D


2.Which tool defines relationships and manages collections of runtime maps at design time?
A. Launcher
B. Design Studio
C. Business Monitor
D. Integration Flow Designer
Answer: D

3.Which WebSphere Transformation Extender stand-alone engine has the following characteristics:
A. Launcher
B. Map Designer
C. Command Server
D. Software Development Kit
Answer: A


Related Exams:
000-289 - Test289--IBM-WebSphere-DataPower-SOA-Appln.-Firmware-V3.6.1
000-991 - Test-991--IBM-WbSphr-Bus--Modeler-Adv-V6.0.2--Bus-Anl.+Des.
LOT-801 - IBM-Lotus-Notes-Domino-8-Application-Development-Update
000-023 - IBM-Tivoli-Support-Provider-Tools-and-Processes
000-702 - db2-udb-v8.1-for-z/os-database-administration

640-802-Cisco Certified Network Associate

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Web Demo:
1.Which two of the following choices are the primary benefits of the Cisco ecosystem of partners? (Choose two.)
A. It helps customers obtain quality products and services at reduced prices.
B. It enables customers to recycle their old equipment.
C. It makes it easy for customers to engage with systems integrators.
D. It makes it easy for customers to engage with service providers and application partners.
E. It makes it easy for customers to buy equipment that is environmentally safe.
Answer: CD


2. Your customer says, "Mobility services are not a budget priority. If we need mobility services later, we can always expand our network then." Which of the following statements would be your best response?
A. A pervasive deployment of the Cisco Unified Wireless Network solution with integrated security services delivers the required level of security that allows you to proactively secure your business.
B. Seizing this opportunity before the competition will allow you to be more proactive and set the business pace.
C. It will be difficult to react quickly when a competitor deploys mobility services. If you wait, you will need to upgrade your network and deploy the service at the same time.
D. The costs of a wireless network are very likely to rise in the future. Customers are much better off in the long term to invest in a WLAN today.
Answer: C


3.When attending a meeting with the CTO of a manufacturing firm, it becomes clear that adding the resources of an ecosystem partner would help build a solution that would help close the deal. Which two Ecosystem partner technologies would you reccommend to the CTO at this manufacturing company?
A. Handheld scanning devices
B. Passive RFID
C. Active RFID Tags
D. Global Positioning Services (GPS)
E. Network Management Services
Answer: AC


Related Exams:
642-964 - Cisco-Data-Center-Networking-Infrastructure-Solutions-Support
642-112 - Converged-Business
350-018-lab - CCIE-Pre-Qualification-Test-for-Security-(Lab-exam)
642-582 - Wireless-LAN-Wireless-LAN-for-Field-Engineers-Exam
646-589 - Cisco-Lifecycle-Services-Advanced-Wireless(LCSAWLAN)

640-802-Cisco Certified Network Associate

000-101-Virtualization Technical Support for AIX and Linux

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Web Demo:
1.Why is it necessary to prioritize traffic when a user tries to access physical resources over the WAN?
A. to ensure communications are secure
B. to ensure access to applications is provided
C. to ensure application service levels are reliable
D. to facilitate consolidation efforts
Answer: C


2.Cisco WAAS Central Manager is used to centrally configure, manage, and monitor what?
A. a fully meshed network
B. the egress router
C. a topology of Cisco WAE devices
D. all Cisco network devices
Answer: C


3.Which of these is a Layer 4 WAN optimization component?
A. DCE
B. TSO
C. DRE
D. DWE
Answer: C


Related Exams:
646-391 - Cisco-Lifecycle-Services-Express(LCSE)
642-652 - Wide-Area-Application-Services-for-Field-Engineers
646-573 - Cisco-Lifecycle-Services-Advanced-Security(LCSAS)
646-227 - Lifecycle-Services-Advanced-IP-Communications-Exam
650-178 - SBCSEN-Smart-Business-Communication-Systems-for-Engineers

640-802-Cisco Certified Network Associate

000-101-Virtualization Technical Support for AIX and Linux

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Web Demo:
1. When performing an archive process that uses a Storage Profile, which action could be performed as a result of using the storage profile?
A. Creates a connection to the database for use by the storage management device.
B. Creates a connection to the storage management device and copies an Archive File to a backup device.
C. Creates a storage allocation parameter for the storage or file management system.
D. Creates a duplicate of the existing information from the Archive Repository on the storage management device.
Answer: B


2.When using InfoSphere Federation Server to access Optim extended data sources, what must be created to define a federated object?
A. a wrapper, a system definition, a user mapping, and a nickname
B. a wrapper, a server definition, a user mapping, and a DB Alias
C. a wrapper, a system definition, a nickname, and a DB Alias
D. a wrapper, a server definition, a user mapping, and a nickname
Answer: D


3.Given the command line syntax shown below:
PR0CMND /R JOB=PERSONNEL' OUTPUT=PER.TXT MONITOR+ QUIET+
Which task is performed?
A. Runs the job named PERSONNEL, places the process report output in a file named PER.TXT, and displays prompts and error dialogs during the process.
B. Schedules a job named PERSONNEL, stores the extracted data in a file named PER.TXT, and displays information dialogs during the process.
C. Runs the job named PERSONNEL, places the process report output in a file named PER.TXT, and displays information dialogs during the process.
D. Schedules the job named PERSONNEL, stores the extracted data in a file named PER.TXT, and displays prompts and error dialogs during the process.
Answer: C


Related Exams:
LOT-701 - IBM-Lotus-Notes-Domino-7-Application-Development-Update
000-908 - Tivoli-Monitoring-V6.2-Implementation
000-M38 - IBM-Lotus-Notes-&-Domino-Technical-Sales-Mastery-Test-v2
000-M06 - IBM-WebSphere-Business-Modeler-Tech-Sales-Mastery-Test-v1
LOT-802 - IBM-Lotus-Notes-Domino-8-System-Administration-Update

640-802-Cisco Certified Network Associate

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Web Demo:
1.A customer wants to collect performance data from a newly installed IBM System Storage DS8300 to determine if the system meets expected benchmarks using their application test data. Which tool best gathers the performance data?
A. IBM DS Storage Manager
B. IBM Tivoli Storage Resource Manager
C. IBM TotalStorage Productivity Center for Disk
D. IBM TotalStorage Productivity Center for Data
Answer: C


2.What is one reason the customer should install IBM System Storage DS8000 Virtual Private Network (VPN) technology for the Call Home function?
A. to avoid using a more expensive dial-up modem
B. to load new licensed internal code
C. to achieve more efficient and faster problem resolution
D. to enable capacity on demand
Answer: C


3.The Business Partner technical specialist is called to check if the addition of host ports on an IBM System Storage DS8000 system has improved users' response times for an IBM System p server running SAP. How can the improvement be verified?
A. check the output of the vmstat command on AIX
B. check the performance reports via TotalStorage Productivity Center for Data
C. check the performance reports via TotalStorage Productivity Center for Disk
D. check the improvement through the TotalStorage Expert report
Answer: C


Related Exams:
COG-200 - IBM-Cognos-8-Controller-Developer
000-019 - IBM-Tivoli-Network-Manager-IP-Edition-V3.8-Implementation
LOT-953 - IBM-Lotus-Notes-Domino-8.5-Application-Development-Intermediate-Skills
000-387 - ibm-open-systems-storage-solutions-version3
000-296 - test296-ibm-websphere-mq-v5.3-solution-design

640-802-Cisco Certified Network Associate

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Web Demo:
1.Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP has been configured on all routers in the network. What additional configuration statement should be included on router R4 to advertise a default route to its neighbors?
A. R4(config)# ip default-network 10.0.0.0
B. R4(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.1
C. R4(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 10.1.1.1
D. R4(config-router)# default-information originate
Answer: A


2. Into which two types of areas would an area border router (ABR) inject a default route? (Choose two.)
A. the autonomous system of a different interior gateway protocol (IGP)
B. area 0
C. totally stubby
D. NSSA
E. stub
F. the autonomous system of an exterior gateway protocol (EGP)
Answer: CE


3.If a metric is not specified for routes that are redistributed into OSPF, the default metric that is assigned to the routes is 20, except for redistributed BGP routes. What is the metric that is assigned to redistributed BGP routes?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 10
D. 200
Answer: B

Related Exams:
350-018 - CCIE-Pre-Qualification-Test-for-Security
640-802J - Cisco-Certified-Network-Associate
642-522 - Securing-Networks-with-PIX-and-ASA-Exam(SNPA)
642-414 - IP-Communications-Telephony-Design-Exam-(IPTD)
646-392 - Lifecycle-Services-Exam(LCSE)

640-802-Cisco Certified Network Associate

000-101-Virtualization Technical Support for AIX and Linux

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Web Demo:
1.An insurance company is building a state machine for accident claims processing. Before a claim can be paid, an accident investigator must sign off on any filed claims. If an investigator rejects a claim, the claim should be returned to the agent that filed the claim for further processing. Which statements describe an approach that should be considered?
A. Create states called Claim and Investigate. Transition from Investigate to Claim when a claim is rejected.
B. Create states called Claim, Investigate, and Reclaim. Transition from Investigate to Reclaim when a claim is rejected.
C. Create states called Claim and Investigate. Transition from Investigate to Terminate when a claim is rejected. Restart the state machine on a rejection and return to Claim.
D. Create a state called Process. Transition to a human task called Investigate for the investigator. Transition from the human task to Final state. Restart the state machine on a rejection and return to Process.
Answer: A


2. After some initialization, a long running business process needs further input from the client. The process should only wait for a certain period of time. If that time has passed without further user input, default processing should start. Which BPEL construct can most effectively handle this situation?
A. Receive choice with a timeout element
B. Receive activity with a parallel wait activity
C. Receive choice with a subsequent wait activity
D. Receive activity with expiration properties defined
Answer: A


3.A business rule applies a graduated discount rate based on an input customer's total purchases over the past year. How should the business rule be implemented?
A. As a rule set
B. As a rule group
C. As a decision table
D. As a business rule bean
Answer: A


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000-744 - DS4000-Technical-Version-1

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Web Demo:
1.In which situation is a failed event generated in case of a runtime exception in the called component?
A. A business process calls a one way service asynchronously.
B. A business process calls a request/response service asynchronously.
C. A one-way business process is initiated by the Business Flow Manager API client.
D. A request/response business process is initiated by the Business Flow Manager API client.
Answer: A


2.An integration developer needs to access an HTTP SOAP header in a mediation flow. How should an XPath expression begin so it can access the HTTP SOAP header?
A. /headers/SOAPHeader
B. /SMOHeader/SOAPHeader
C. /headers/Envelope/Header
D. /SMOHeader/Envelope/Header
Answer: A


3.An insurance company is building a state machine for accident claims processing. Before a claim can be paid, an accident investigator must sign off on any filed claims. If an investigator rejects a claim, the claim should be returned to the agent that filed the claim for further processing. Which statements describe an approach that should be considered?
A. Create states called Claim and Investigate. Transition from Investigate to Claim when a claim is rejected.
B. Create states called Claim, Investigate, and Reclaim. Transition from Investigate to Reclaim when a claim is rejected.
C. Create states called Claim and Investigate. Transition from Investigate to Terminate when a claim is rejected. Restart the state machine on a rejection and return to Claim.
D. Create a state called Process. Transition to a human task called Investigate for the investigator. Transition from the human task to Final state. Restart the state machine on a rejection and return to Process.
Answer: A


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000-026 - Fundamentals-of-Applying-Tivoli-Storage-Solutions-2009
000-041 - Programming-with-IBM-Enterprise-PL/I

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Web Demo:
1.You attempt to upgrade a Microsoft Windows XP computer to Windows Vista.
You receive an error message during the upgrade process indicating that the upgrade has failed.
You need to view the details of the error message.
What should you do?
A. From the Windows Recovery Environment (WinRE), run diskpart.exe.
B. From the Windows Recovery Environment (WinRE), review the Boot.ini file.
C. From the Windows Recovery Environment (WinRE), examine the contents of the WindowsPanther folder.
D. Start the computer from the Windows XP installation media and select the Repair option.
Answer: C


2.Your computer runs Microsoft Windows 2000 with Service Pack 3.
You need to upgrade your computer to Microsoft Windows Vista. You must achieve this goal without reinstalling the applications.
What should you do?
A. First upgrade the computer to Microsoft Windows XP Professional, and then upgrade to Windows Vista.
B. Install Microsoft Windows 2000 Professional Service Pack 4 on the computer. Start a Windows Vista upgrade from an installation DVD.
C. Install Windows Vista into a separate partition. Use the Windows Easy Transfer wizard to upgrade your settings to the Windows Vista operating system.
D. Copy your user profile to a removable media. Perform a clean installation of Windows Vista. Copy your user profile to the C:Users directory.
Answer: A

3. You have a computer that runs Microsoft Windows XP. The computer has a custom application installed.
You plan to upgrade the Windows XP computer to Windows Vista.
You need to identify whether User Account Control (UAC) will allow the custom application to run without requiring elevated privileges.
What should you do?
A. Insert the Windows Vista installation media and run mighost.exe.
B. Insert the Windows Vista installation media and run setup.exe /unattended:unattend.xml.
C. Install Microsoft Application Compatibility Toolkit 5.0 and run the Setup Analysis Tool.
D. Install Microsoft Application Compatibility Toolkit 5.0 and run the Standard User Analyzer.
Answer: D


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70-350 - MCSE-Implementing-Microsoft-Internet-Security-and-Acceleration-(ISA)-Server-2004
70-634 - Pro:MS-Office-Project-Server-2007.-Managing-Projects-&-Prgms
MB6-503 - AX-4.0-Installation-&-Configuration

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Web Demo:
1.Which of the following are valid editions within the WebSphere Application Server V6 offering?
A. WebSphere Application Server (base)
B. WebSphere Application Server Small Business
C. WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment
D. WebSphere Application Server Express
Answer: ACD


2.Which of the following components are included as part of WebSphere Application Server's basic architecture?
A. Messaging engine
B. Name server
C. HTTP server
D. JavaBeans container
Answer: ABC


3. Which of the following are supported cell configurations where co-existence of WebSphere Application Server versions exists?
A. Version 5.x nodes can be included in a Version 6 cell
B. Version 6 servers can be added to mixed Version 5.x/Version 6 clusters
C. Version 6 servers can be added to a Version 5.x cluster
D. Co-existence of versions cannot occur
Answer: AB


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000-210 - IBM-Storage-Networking-Solutions-Version-4
000-223 - IBM-System-p-Administrator

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Web Demo:
1.Which blade servers offer the capability to house two hard drives internally?
I.HS20
II.LS20
III.LS41
IV.HS21XM
A. I, II, and III
B. I, II, and IV
C. I, III, and IV
D. II, III, and IV
Answer: A


2.A customer is concerned about their newly purchased System x server's response time. The installed application is CPU intensive. Which IBM tool should the customer use to identify potential bottlenecks?
A. UpdateXpress
B. Capacity Manager
C. ServerGuide
D. System Availability
Answer: B


3.A customer has an IBM BladeCenter with ten HS21 Blade servers installed. Currently only one Ethernet port is available for each server. What is required to enable the second port on each server?
A. Fibre Channel Switch Module
B. Gb Ethernet expansion card
C. Myrinet Cluster expansion card
D. Ethernet Switch Module
Answer: D


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Web Demo:
1.Data is loaded into cells in a cube. A cell is identified by the intersection of items from which of the following objects?
A. Attribute
B. Subset
C. Dimension
D. Slice
Answer: C


2.Which of the following element types identifies the lowest level in a dimension hierarchy?
A. String
B. Attribute
C. Consolidation
D. Simple
Answer: D


3.When an application developer constructs a cube, what is the minimum number of dimensions the cube must contain?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B


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