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Web Demo:
1.Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB? (Choose two.)
A. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB.
B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB.
C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1.
D. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB.
E. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN.
Answer: BC


2.Before installing a new, upgraded version of the IOS, what should be checked on the router, and which command should be used to gather this information? (Choose two.)
A. the amount of available ROM
B. the amount of available flash and RAM memory
C. the version of the bootstrap software present on the router
D. show version
E. show processes
F. show running-config
Answer: BD


3.A network administrator is explaining VTP configuration to a new technician. What should the network administrator tell the new technician about VTP configuration? (Choose three.)
A. A switch in the VTP client mode cannot update its local VLAN database.
B. A trunk link must be configured between the switches to forward VTP updates.
C. A switch in the VTP server mode can update a switch in the VTP transparent mode.
D. A switch in the VTP transparent mode will forward updates that it receives to other switches.
E. A switch in the VTP server mode only updates switches in the VTP client mode that have a higher VTP revision number.
F. A switch in the VTP server mode will update switches in the VTP client mode regardless of the configured VTP domain membership.
Answer: ABD


Related Exams:
350-018-lab - CCIE-Pre-Qualification-Test-for-Security-(Lab-exam)
642-091 - CRM-Express-lntegration
642-444 - CCVP-IP-Telephony-Exam-(CIPT)
642-979 - Cisco-Data-Center-Unified-Computing-Support-Specialist-Qualifier-Exam
351-018 - Security-3.0-Beta

 

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Web Demo:
1. When users cannot access a TM1 application, the application developer should ensure the host process is correct. Which of the following is the host process?
A. TM1 data server
B. TM1 admin server
C. TM1 web server
D. TM1 local server
Answer: B


2.An application developer needs to know the last time the Sales Forecast cube was updated. The cube file, including the date and time stamp, can be found in which of the following locations?
A. In the data directory.
B. In the data file.
C. On the web server.
D. On the admin server.
Answer: A


3.Aggregation is automatically applied when building a dimension. Which of the following option is the basis for aggregation?
A. Formats
B. Rules
C. Attributes
D. Hierarchies
Answer: D


Related Exams:
000-912 - performance-tuning:informix-dynamic-server-v7
000-348 - test-348-websphere-portal-v5.0.application-development
000-799 - ibm-tivoli-storage-manager-v5.3-implementation
000-646 - Rational-Manual-Tester
000-771 - IBM-Tivoli-Provisioning-Mgrw/Orchestration-V3.1-Implement

 

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Web Demo:
1.Transformer is unable to locate one of the source files for a data source in the model, and the model update fails. Which type of files can be used to restart the processing at the point of failure?
A. .py?
B. .qy?
C. .mdl
D. .mdx
Answer: B


2.Where should fact queries against OLAP sources come from?
A. A flat file
B. An .iqd file
C. A Cognos 8 report
D. A Cognos 8 package
Answer: A


3. Which of the following will help improve processing time when Transformer queries the data?
A. Use Cognos 8 packages and reports as structural data sources.
B. Separate structural and transactional information in multiple data sources.
C. Combine structural and transactional information into one data source.
D. Define dimensions with one transactional data source.
Answer: B


Related Exams:
000-002 - IBM-Tivoli-Storage-Productivity-Center-V4.1-Implementation
000-760 - ibm-ebusiness-hosting-services-sales
000-695 - Fundamentals-of-Enterprise-Sol.Using-IBM-Tivoli-Security
000-898 - IBM-Tivoli-Provisioning-Manager-V5.1
000-716 - DB2-Data-Warehouse-Edition-V9.1

 

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Web Demo:
1.Why would an administrator want to copy a user profile?
A. The user was deleted using a third-party authentication provider.
B. The administrator wants to copy trusted credentials for multiple users.
C. The user has changed names and the administrator is setting up an account in the new name.
D. The user requires enhanced security permissions before logging on to Cognos 8 for the first time.
Answer: C


2.What can an administrator create to ensure that multiple users do not have to enter database credentials when they run reports?
A. Signon
B. Single signon
C. Collation sequence
D. Connection sequence
Answer: A

3.An administrator wants to show the folder hierarchy of Cognos Connection in a portlet. Which portlet must the administrator use?
A. Cognos Viewer
B. Cognos Search
C. Cognos Navigator
D. Cognos Extended Applications
Answer: C


Related Exams:
LOT-801 - IBM-Lotus-Notes-Domino-8-Application-Development-Update
000-639 - rational-unified-process
000-060 - IBM-Dynamic-Infrastructure-Sales-Leader
000-228 - IBM-Seystem-p-Technical-Sales-Support
000-100 - ENTERPRISE-TECHNICAL-SUPPORT-FOR-AIX-AND-LINUX

 

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Web Demo:
1.What are three valid levels of Optim Security? (Choose three.)
A. Database Security
B. Object Security
C. Functional Security
D. Network Security
E. Archive File Security
Answer: BCE


2.When using InfoSphere Federation Server to access Optim extended data sources, what must be created to define a federated object?
A. a wrapper, a system definition, a user mapping, and a nickname
B. a wrapper, a server definition, a user mapping, and a DB Alias
C. a wrapper, a system definition, a nickname, and a DB Alias
D. a wrapper, a server definition, a user mapping, and a nickname
Answer: D


3.Click the Exhibit button.
Given this information from the Relationships tab of an Access Definition, and the information from this Show Steps report in the exhibit, why is the STATE_LOOKUP table listed as UNTRAVERSED?
A. There is no active relationship for the STATE_LOOKUP table.
B. Q2 needs to be activated between SALES and STATE_LOOKUP.
C. Q1 needs to be de-activated between SALES and STATE_LOOKUP.
D. The relationship between SALES and STATE_LOOKUP is unselected.
Answer: B


Related Exams:
000-711 - U2-UniData-V6.1-for-UNIX-and-Windows-Administration
000-042 - Developing-with-IBM-Enterprise-PL/I
000-887 - IBM-Tivoli-Monitoring-Express-V6.1
000-M37 - IBM-WebSphere-Portal-Technical-Sales-Mastery-v2
000-x01 - IBM-System-x-iDataPlex-Mastery-V1

 

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Web Demo:
1.Which of the following BEST describes the form used while transferring evidence?
A. Booking slip
B. Affidavit
C. Chain of custody
D. Evidence log
Answer: C


2.A CRL contains a list of which of the following type of keys?
A. Both public and private keys
B. Steganographic keys
C. Private keys
D. Public keys
Answer: A


3.A CEO is concerned about staff browsing inappropriate material on the Internet via HTTPS. It has been suggested that the company purchase a product which could decrypt the SSL session, scan the content and then repackage the SSL session without staff knowing. Which of the following type of attacks is similar to this product?
A. Replay
B. Spoofing
C. TCP/IP hijacking
D. Man-in-the-middle
Answer: D


Related Exams:
FC0-U11 - CompTIA-Strata-Fundamentals-PC-Functionality-Test
JK0-603 - CompTIA-E2C-JK0-603-Exam-(Remote-Support-Technician-designation-pathway)
pk0-002 - IT-Project+-Certification-Exam(2003-Objectives)
xk0-002 - Linux+-Certification-Exam(2004-Objectives)
EK0-002 - e-BIZ+-Certification-Exam

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000-101-Virtualization Technical Support for AIX and Linux

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Web Demo:
1.2217.10223/28 is an example of which kind of notation?
A. ARP
B. CIDR
C. DNS
D. Port Number
Answer: B

2. 802.11 security is defined in:
A. 802.11a.
B. 802.11b.
C. 802.11g.
D. 802.11i.
Answer: D


3.A user connects to the companys intranet server via a VPN connection from a small office / home office (SOHO) using the broadband service. One day, the user cannot successfully connect to the VPN and receives an error message that states "Username and password are invalid on the domain." Which of the following should be done to correct this problem?
A. Call the corporate help desk to have the VPN server rebooted
B. Re-enter the username and password in the VPN connection and reconnect
C. Call the broadband Internet provider to replace the SOHO router with a newer model
D. Ping the corporate VPN server to ensure it is online
Answer: B


Related Exams:
BR0-003 - CompTIA-A+-Bridge-(2009-Edition)-Exam
220-602 - CompTIA-220-602-Exam-(IT-Technician-designation-pathway)
xk0-002 - Linux+-Certification-Exam(2004-Objectives)
220-702 - CompTIA-A+-Practical-Application-(2009-Edition)
PK1-003 - CompTIA-Project+-Certification-(BETA-Exam)

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Web Demo:
1.Who has the MOST influence over project decisions?
A. Project team members
B. End users
C. Key stakeholders
D. Project manager
Answer: C


2.Which of the following activities would happen LAST in procurement management?
A. Request seller responses
B. Perform contract administration
C. Perform vendor selection
D. Perform a make or buy analysis
Answer: B

3.Which of the following is the purpose of a Pareto diagram?
A. To show the sequence in which work will be performed
B. To create the process that will complete the project
C. To determine the critical path
D. To direct team efforts to the areas that will have the most impact
Answer: D


Related Exams:
pk0-002 - IT-Project+-Certification-Exam(2003-Objectives)
HT0-101 - HTI+-RESIDENTIAL-SYSTEMS-EXAM
HT0-201 - CEA-CompTIA-DHTI+-Exam
220-602 - CompTIA-220-602-Exam-(IT-Technician-designation-pathway)
xk0-001 - LINUX+-CERTIFICATION-EXAM(2001-Objectives)

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Web Demo:
1.Which of the following could BEST assist in the recovery of a crashed hard drive?
A. Forensics software
B. Drive optimization
C. Drive sanitization
D. Damage and loss control
Answer: A


2.An administrator in a small office environment has implemented an IDS on the network perimeter to detect malicious traffic patterns. The administrator still has a concern about traffic inside the network originating between client workstations. Which of the following could be implemented?
A. HIDS
B. A VLAN
C. A network router
D. An access list
Answer: A

3.A CRL contains a list of which of the following type of keys?
A. Both public and private keys
B. Steganographic keys
C. Private keys
D. Public keys
Answer: A


Related Exams:
220-603 - CompTIA-A+-220-603-(Remote-Support-Tech-designation-pathway)
JK0-603 - CompTIA-E2C-JK0-603-Exam-(Remote-Support-Technician-designation-pathway)
PD0-001 - CompTIA-PDI+-Exam
JK0-011 - E2C/Jobs+-Linux+-Certification
EK0-002 - e-BIZ+-Certification-Exam

640-802-Cisco Certified Network Associate

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Web Demo:
1. When performing an archive process that uses a Storage Profile, which action could be performed as a result of using the storage profile?
A. Creates a connection to the database for use by the storage management device.
B. Creates a connection to the storage management device and copies an Archive File to a backup device.
C. Creates a storage allocation parameter for the storage or file management system.
D. Creates a duplicate of the existing information from the Archive Repository on the storage management device.
Answer: B


2.What are two possible locations where would you could find the fetch strategy chosen by Attunity when working with an extended data source? (Choose two.)
A. nav.log
B. irpcd.log
C. optdbg.xml
D. db2trc file
E. admin_svc.log
Answer: AC


3.Given the command line syntax shown below:
PR0CMND /R JOB=PERSONNEL' OUTPUT=PER.TXT MONITOR+ QUIET+
Which task is performed?
A. Runs the job named PERSONNEL, places the process report output in a file named PER.TXT, and displays prompts and error dialogs during the process.
B. Schedules a job named PERSONNEL, stores the extracted data in a file named PER.TXT, and displays information dialogs during the process.
C. Runs the job named PERSONNEL, places the process report output in a file named PER.TXT, and displays information dialogs during the process.
D. Schedules the job named PERSONNEL, stores the extracted data in a file named PER.TXT, and displays prompts and error dialogs during the process.
Answer: C


Related Exams:
000-881 - IBM-Tivoli-Storage-Manager-V5-Administration(881)-Exam
000-M37 - IBM-WebSphere-Portal-Technical-Sales-Mastery-v2
000-639 - rational-unified-process
000-702 - db2-udb-v8.1-for-z/os-database-administration
000-884 - IBM-Tivoli-Identity-Manager-Express-V4.6

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Web Demo:
1.Which of the following are valid editions within the WebSphere Application Server V6 offering?
A. WebSphere Application Server (base)
B. WebSphere Application Server Small Business
C. WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment
D. WebSphere Application Server Express
Answer: ACD


2.Which of the following components are included as part of WebSphere Application Server's basic architecture?
A. Messaging engine
B. Name server
C. HTTP server
D. JavaBeans container
Answer: ABC


3. Which of the following are supported cell configurations where co-existence of WebSphere Application Server versions exists?
A. Version 5.x nodes can be included in a Version 6 cell
B. Version 6 servers can be added to mixed Version 5.x/Version 6 clusters
C. Version 6 servers can be added to a Version 5.x cluster
D. Co-existence of versions cannot occur
Answer: AB


Related Exams:
000-970 - System-i-Operations-V5.07.10
000-M42 - IBM-Lotus-Sametime-Unified-Telephony-Basic-Tech-Sales-Mas-v1
000-912 - performance-tuning:informix-dynamic-server-v7
000-376 - IBM-WebSphere-MQ-V7.0--Solution-Design
000-314 - IBM-WebSphere-Message-Broker-V6.1.-System-Administration

640-802-Cisco Certified Network Associate

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Web Demo:
1. You have noticed that the mail-in database that stores server diagnostic information is growing large. It is possible to limit messages for automatic diagnostic data collection by adjusting what setting?
A. Diagnostic file patterns
B. Maximum size of diagnostic message including attachments (in MB)
C. Minimum size of collection message including attachments (in MB)
D. The name of the mail-in database used for receiving automatic diagnostic data
Answer: B


2.Due to space considerations on her Domino server, Anissa has had to locate new databases under a folder not in the Domino data directory. Instead she has placed them on the F drive. Which one of the following should Anissa use to make these databases accessible to the users?
A. Database Link
B. Directory Link
C. Profile Document
D. File Protection Document
Answer: B


3.Sal set up a mail routing event generator. What does this generator provide?
A. It loads all mail tasks on the server
B. Create entries in the EVLOG.NSF database
C. It tests connectivity to all other mail servers in the domain
D. It sends a mail trace message to a specified user's mail server
Answer: D

Related Exams:
000-416 - IBM-WebSphere-IIS-QualityStage-v7.5
000-430 - IBM-Tivoli-Netcool-Service-Quality-Manager
000-871 - ibm-ticoli-totalstorage-productivity-center-v1.2-impl
000-141 - test-141-xml-and-related-technologies
000-779 - ibm-tivoli-workload-scheduler-v8.2-exam

640-802-Cisco Certified Network Associate

000-101-Virtualization Technical Support for AIX and Linux

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Web Demo:
1. Which of the following will help improve processing time when Transformer queries the data?
A. Use Cognos 8 packages and reports as structural data sources.
B. Separate structural and transactional information in multiple data sources.
C. Combine structural and transactional information into one data source.
D. Define dimensions with one transactional data source.
Answer: B


2.A Cognos 8 report with prompts is used as a data source. What must be done to create a second query that is based on the same report but provides different values for mandatory prompts?
A. Add the second query to the report data source.
B. Refresh the source when adding the second query.
C. Add prompt values to the cache in the Transformer data source.
D. Add the same report as another Transformer report data source.
Answer: D


3.For performance reasons, what is the best parent-child ratio for categories in each level?
A. 1:10 or less
B. 1:11 or more
C. 5:1 or less
D. 3:1 or more
Answer: A


Related Exams:
000-568 - test-568-ibm-host-on-demand-v5.0-and-screen-customizer-v2.0
000-974 - Power-Systems-Technical-Support-for-i
000-071 - ibm-eserver-x-series-technical-principle-v5
000-998 - WebSphere-Message-Broker-V6.0-System-Admin
000-737 - DB2-9-System-Administrator-for-z/OS-Exam

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Web Demo:
1.Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB? (Choose two.)
A. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB.
B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB.
C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1.
D. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB.
E. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN.
Answer: BC


2.Which two locations can be configured as a source for the IOS image in the boot system command? (Choose two.)
A. RAM
B. NVRAM
C. flash memory
D. HTTP server
E. TFTP server
F. Telnet server
Answer: CE


3.Before installing a new, upgraded version of the IOS, what should be checked on the router, and which command should be used to gather this information? (Choose two.)
A. the amount of available ROM
B. the amount of available flash and RAM memory
C. the version of the bootstrap software present on the router
D. show version
E. show processes
F. show running-config
Answer: BD


Related Exams:
650-621 - LCSAWALAN--Cisco-Lifecycle-Services-Advanced-Wireless
642-072 - Cisco-Unity-Design-and-Networking(CUDN)
646-563 - Advanced-Security-for-Account-Managers-Exam
646-574 - Lifecycle-Services-Advanced-Security-(LCSAS)
646-057 - Access-Routing-and-LAN-Switching-Routing-and-Switching-AM-Exam

640-802-Cisco Certified Network Associate

000-101-Virtualization Technical Support for AIX and Linux

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Web Demo:
1.Which two statements about the Cisco AutoSecure feature are true? (Choose two.)
A. All passwords entered during the AutoSecure configuration must be a minimum of 8 characters in length.
B. Cisco123 would be a valid password for both the enable password and the enable secret commands.
C. The auto secure command can be used to secure the router login as well as the NTP and SSH protocols.
D. For an interactive full session of AutoSecure, the auto secure login command should be used.
E. If the SSH server was configured, the 1024 bit RSA keys are generated after the auto secure command is enabled.
Answer: CE


2.Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the AAA configuration are true? (Choose two.)
A. A good security practice is to have the none parameter configured as the final method used to ensure that no other authentication method will be used.
B. If a TACACS+ server is not available, then a user connecting via the console port would not be able to gain access since no other authentication method has been defined.
C. If a TACACS+ server is not available, then the user Bob could be able to enter privileged mode as long as the proper enable password is entered.
D. The aaa new-model command forces the router to override every other authentication method previously configured for the router lines.
E. To increase security, group radius should be used instead of group tacacs+.
F. Two authentication options are prescribed by the displayed aaa authentication command.
Answer: DF


3. Which three statements are correct about MPLS-based VPNs? (Choose three.)
A. Route Targets (RTs) are attributes attached to a VPNv4 BGP route to indicate its VPN membership.
B. Scalability becomes challenging for a very large, fully meshed deployment.
C. Authentication is done using a digital certificate or pre-shared key.
D. A VPN client is required for client-initiated deployments.
E. A VPN client is not required for users to interact with the network.
F. An MPLS-based VPN is highly scalable because no site-to-site peering is required.
Answer: AEF


Related Exams:
646-562 - Security-for-Account-Managers-(ASAM)
642-426 - Troubleshooting-Unified-Communications-(TUC)
642-565 - Cisco-Security-Solutions-for-Systems-Engineers-(SSSE)
646-276 - Selling-Cisco-Unified-MeetingPlace-Solutions-(SMPS)
642-071 - IP-Communications-Cisco-Unity-Design-aNetworking-(CUDN)nd

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Web Demo:
1.Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP has been configured on all routers in the network. What additional configuration statement should be included on router R4 to advertise a default route to its neighbors?
A. R4(config)# ip default-network 10.0.0.0
B. R4(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.1
C. R4(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 10.1.1.1
D. R4(config-router)# default-information originate
Answer: A


2.If a metric is not specified for routes that are redistributed into OSPF, the default metric that is assigned to the routes is 20, except for redistributed BGP routes. What is the metric that is assigned to redistributed BGP routes?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 10
D. 200
Answer: B


3.Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?
A. Router RAR1 will accept only route 10.10.0.0/19 from its BGP neighbor.
B. Router RAR1 will send only route 10.10.0.0/19 to its BGP neighbor.
C. Only traffic with a destination from 10.10.0.0/19 will be permitted.
D. Only traffic going to 10.10.0.0/19 will be permitted.
Answer: A


Related Exams:
642-144 - IP-Telephony-Express(IPTX)
646-002 - Advanced-Routing-and-Switching-for-Account-Managers
640-801 - Cisco-Certified-Network-Associate-(CCNA)
642-453 - Gateway-Gatekeeper(GWGK)
646-589 - Cisco-Lifecycle-Services-Advanced-Wireless(LCSAWLAN)

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Web Demo:
1.Cisco WAAS Central Manager is used to centrally configure, manage, and monitor what?
A. a fully meshed network
B. the egress router
C. a topology of Cisco WAE devices
D. all Cisco network devices
Answer: C


2.Which Layer 4 component is responsible for optimization when data is accessed?
A. DCE
B. TSO
C. DRE
D. DWE
Answer: C

3. The Cisco Central Manager GUI allows administrators to perform which three actions or sets of actions? (Choose three.)
A. view reports detailing the effectiveness of acceleration
B. set up and distribute print drivers
C. prioritize network traffic through the WAE
D. correlate security alerts that reach the LAN
E. accelerate CIFS traffic with the assistance of QoS
F. create, edit, and delete application policies
Answer: ABF


Related Exams:
646-202 - Sales-Expert-Cisco-Sales-Expert-Exam-(CSE)
350-001GB2312-LAB - CCIE-Routing-and-Switching-Written-exam
642-533 - Implementing-Cisco-Intrusion-Prevention-System-(IPS)
642-055 - ARSFE-Advanced-Routing-and-Switching-for-Field-Engineers
642-415 - Unified-Communications-Architecture-and-Design

640-802-Cisco Certified Network Associate

000-101-Virtualization Technical Support for AIX and Linux

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B. the customers CEO
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3.Which two conditions should be met in order for the customer to understand the findings of the requirements analysis? (Choose two.)
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B. Requirements must be defined by the customer.
C. Recommendations must be presented to the customer.
D. Customer expectations must be documented in the analysis.
E. The format for the analysis must be provided by the customer.
Answer: CD


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1.Why is it necessary to prioritize traffic when a user tries to access physical resources over the WAN?
A. to ensure communications are secure
B. to ensure access to applications is provided
C. to ensure application service levels are reliable
D. to facilitate consolidation efforts
Answer: C


2.Which of these is a Layer 4 WAN optimization component?
A. DCE
B. TSO
C. DRE
D. DWE
Answer: C


3. The Cisco Central Manager GUI allows administrators to perform which three actions or sets of actions? (Choose three.)
A. view reports detailing the effectiveness of acceleration
B. set up and distribute print drivers
C. prioritize network traffic through the WAE
D. correlate security alerts that reach the LAN
E. accelerate CIFS traffic with the assistance of QoS
F. create, edit, and delete application policies
Answer: ABF


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